Why is fictional violence accepted in the USA? Fictional violence should be defined under obscenity too in my opinion. Obscenity laws still do not make any sense to me. They are not needed. The rated r movie It contains special effects violence towards a child. Why is this allowed? A double standard appears to exist. Violence should be considered obscene which technically should make obscenity laws unconstitutional. We all know Hollywood is not going to censor violent movies.
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Because the normies think that no one gets off on it sexually. That’s why “coomer” is more often used as an insult than “violence-loving bastard” or whatever.
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Expanding the State’s power to censor and prosecute people for creating fiction doesn’t make any of us safer.
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Brandenburg v. Ohio (1969) strikes again.
The test for incitement is the imminent lawless action test. The gateway, normalize, desensitize, stepping stone framing of incitement cannot satisfy the test for incitement.
There has to be an exception clause to proscribe expression with.
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